A Guide to 

Table Games Supervision

"The intelligent way to start the day; by tying a noose around your neck"

By Dale S. Yeazel

Chapter 15

Casino math Part one 

Part Two

 

Explaining the book “Practical Casino Math.”

In the pursuit of knowledge that is usually only possessed by the elite of the gaming industry, the seeker’s usual choice is to enroll in the much acclaimed casino management course at UNLV. These acolytes are usually motivated by the ambition to become casino managers themselves.

There are some of us though, that have a reluctance to commit the time and money to attend college and whose only ambition is to be over-qualified for whatever position we might find ourselves filling.

“Practical Casino Math” by Robert C. Hannum and Anthony N. Cabot is one of those books that are highly recommended by people of both the aforementioned groups. There is certainly good reason for all of this fanfare. This book contains the distilled knowledge of what is needed to understand the mathematics of (and thus the mechanics) of casino games as well as the math behind such topics as accounting and the comp system.

As for myself; I always excelled in math in public school until I encountered “Intermediate Algebra.” Perhaps this will give you some indication of my math skills and why perhaps the authors under-estimated how many idiots, like myself, would want to pursue this education.

In any case, whether you are preparing to attend UNLV or are like myself and want to read the books most coveted by the powers that be; I can’t imagine you not benefiting from reading this article. I would not have written it otherwise.

An excellent resource for people like myself that managed to forget what mathematics we did learn in school is: Basic Math and Pre-Algebra by the real CliffNotes people and can be downloaded for $14.99 by clicking here. This book has been referenced often in this work.


Chapter 1

Brief History of Gambling

This chapter manages to tell us two things that even the most retarded of us already know: First, gambling has been around for thousands of years. Second, the gaming industry makes a lot of money.


Chapter 2

Mathematical Theory for Casino Games

I have never read or attempted to read a book on probability that didn’t start out easy and then at some point jump into Einstein-ion equations without the least bit of warning. As a self-professed lump, I am reluctant to blame the authors. I will attempt to explain the substance of this chapter using additional emphasis where I deem necessary.

This chapter asserts that the understanding of the mathematics of the games is essential for table game managers. If this is the case, I imagine there are and have been thousands of managers that were unqualified for their positions. This chapter also states that the foundation of the required knowledge is an understanding of probability, odds and percentages.

Probability

I can’t imagine a more succinct explanation of probability than the one in this book: “Outcomes in games of chance are, by definition, uncertain. The branch of mathematics used to describe and calculate uncertainty is called probability. Not surprisingly, the roots of modern probability theory came from gambling problems posed by seventeenth-century gamblers to mathematicians.”

The “American Heritage Dictionary” defines probability as: “A number expressing the likelihood of occurrence of a specific event, such as the ratio of the number of experimental results that would produce the event to the total number of events considered possible.” The concept that you need to immediately embrace is: that the number representing probability can be expressed as a fraction, decimal or percentage.

Fractions, decimals and percentages

Let’s start with the same moronic example that this and every other book use at this point: the famed coin-flipping experiment of death. When citing this and every other example in any book, the author feels compelled to bring up the “fair” clause. That the coin, roulette wheel, dice or deck of cards is “un-biased.” I think that most readers assumed that since they were studying theoretical probabilities but I suppose that this is a good opportunity to remind you that keeping our games random is a responsibility not to be trivialized. 

The chances of correctly predicting the outcome of a tossed coin is most often expressed as a fraction:

Which is often spoken as; “one half.” A description that is more revealing is;” one divided by two.” The number one the left is the “numerator” and the number on the right is the “denominator.” You also see the fraction written as:

Since the denominator is a larger number than the numerator, the number is less than one (<1) but still greater than zero (>0). It is this type of number we deal with in probability, as a value of “1” is considered a certainty and a value of zero is considered an impossibility.

But I regress from our example of the coin toss experiment. There are two possible outcomes of a coin toss: heads or tails. The denominator represents those two outcomes. In other words: the total number of possible outcomes. The numerator represents the total number of “desired” outcomes. In this case, heads or tails, whichever one you called.

As you may remember, I stated that a probability could be represented by a fraction, a decimal or a percentage. How might we convert this fraction of 1/2 into a decimal? We might merely carry out the equation that the fraction suggests and divide 1 by 2. 1/2 = .5 please note that the number “. 5” is halfway between “1” and “0.” 

The easiest method of converting a decimal to a fraction is to: “read it, write it and then reduce it.” You would read .5 as “five tens” and then write it 5/10. By dividing both the numerator and denominator by the largest number that can be evenly divided into both (5) we reduce it to 1/2.

To convert from decimal to percentage we just multiply the number by 100 or move the decimal point two spaces to the right (adding zeros as necessary). So .5 becomes 50%. To convert a percentage to a fraction you would first convert it to a decimal by dividing the percentage by 100 (move the decimal two spaces to the left) and then convert the decimal to a fraction. 50% = .5 = 5/10 = 1/2.

Stating the probability of an event

Armed with this information, you should be able to describe the probability of these events as a fraction, decimal or percentage:

Cutting an ace from a full deck: 4/52 = 1/13 = .076923076923076923076923076923077 ≈ .077 = 7.7%. There are four aces in a deck that contains a total of fifty-two cards. 4/52 can be reduced to 1/13. 1 divided by 13 = .076923076923076923076923076923077. That gay little symbol “≈” means, “is approximately equal to.” For instance, a gram of blow bought from an man standing on a corner of a street named after a letter of the alphabet, could be represented mathematically as (score ≈ 1 gram) or more realistically (score < 1 gram).

I approximated the number by “rounding.” When rounding to a number: if the number to the right of the digit is 4 or less, leave the number the same. If the number to the right is 5 or higher, then round up.

Rolling an eleven with a pair of dice:

There is a total 6 combinations (outcomes or events) that can be rolled with one die

There are a total of 36 combinations that can be rolled with two dice. There are six sides that can occur on the first die, times the six sides of the second die.

On a pair of dice, two of the combinations are eleven. They are 6-5 and 5-6. If you have trouble envisioning the two combinations you can imagine one green die and one red die. You can then roll an eleven by a green die six and a red die five or by a green die five and a red die six.

So we may express the chances (probability) of rolling an eleven as 2/36, since are two combinations of eleven out of a total of 36. 2/36 = 1/18 ≈ .0556 = 5.56%

Remember that since there is only one combination of all the pairs, you would still require green six and a red six to roll a twelve. 1/36 ≈ .0278 = 2.78%

BTW, there are 216 combinations that can be rolled with three dice. 6 x 6 x 6 = 216

Winning a straight-up bet in roulette.

There are 38 pockets on an American roulette wheel: the numbers 1 –36 (18 red & 18 black), “0” (green) and “00” (green). This means the chances of predicting the number is:

1/38 ≈ .0263 = 2.63%

Since there are only 18 red pockets and 18 black pockets, instead of the necessary 19 needed to make a bet on red or black a true odds payoff, the chances of predicting red or black are:

18/38 = 9/19 ≈ .4737 = 47.37%

Of course us gaming people are more comfortable speaking in terms of the “odds against” something occurring instead of the probability or chances of something occurring. A crap dealer will usually describe the chances of throwing a twelve as “35 to 1 against” instead of “1 chance in 36.” For now, all you need to understand is that these two expressions mean the same thing. I will further explain this phenomenon, as well as how to compute house percentage (HP), later in this chapter.

Basic Probability Rules

In the preceding examples, all events had an “equal chance of occurring.” Each of the 52 cards, thirty-six dice combinations and 38 pockets of the roulette wheel all had an equal chance of occurring.

In order to calculate the probability of more complicated events, some additional rules need to be utilized. The understanding of these rules is essential in order to know how to construct the correct solutions to most problems.

Probability Rule 1

“The probability of an event will always be between 0 and 1.” This was touched on briefly earlier. If the probability is “0” an event is impossible. If the probability is “1” it is certain. The closer the probability is to “1” the more likely it is to occur. The probability of a coin toss being heads is .5.

Probability Rule 2

(Complement Rule)

“The probability of an event occurring plus the probability of the event not occurring equals one.” A simple example is to again compute the chances of rolling an eleven. The chances of doing it are 2/36 and the chances of not doing it is: 34/36:

2/36 + 34/36 = 36/36 = 1 = 100%.

You may not appreciate the importance of this rule until you start to work out problems on your own. Remember this: it is often easier to compute the probability of an event not occurring and then subtract that number from 1, in order to determine the probability of it occurring. Say I want to bet someone that he can’t throw one heads in three flips of a coin. The easiest way to compute the probability of that event is to compute the chances of not doing it and then subtracting that probability from zero. 1/2 x 1/2 x 1/2 = (1/2) = 1/8 is the probability of throwing three tails in a row, so the probability of throwing at least one head in three tosses is 7/8 = .875 = 87.5%.

A couple of points to prevent confusion: first, if I lost you on the “1/2 x 1/2 x 1/2” used to compute the probability of tails appearing three consecutive tosses, that will be covered in Rule 4A. Second, the “3” in the “(1/2)3” is called an “exponent” and the number is read “one half to the third power” or “one half cubed.” And in case you have forgotten, indicates how many times the number is used as a factor of itself. The number will always be multiplied by itself one less time than the number of the exponent.

Probability Rule 3

(Addition Rule)

“For mutually exclusive events, the probability of at least one of these events occurring equals the sum of their individual probabilities.” The key phrase is “at least one.” In other words, not all events must occur, only one of them. Remember the word “sum” indicates addition, so the probabilities are added together to compute the probability of at least one of them occurring. Remember that we are talking about mutually exclusive events, where the occurrence of one event precludes the occurrence of the other(s).

The probability of cutting a red card or the ace of spades is:

26/52 + 1/52 = 27/52 ≈ .5192 = 51.92%

Probability Rule 4A

(Multiplication Rule-Independent Events)

“For independent events, the probability of all of them occurring equals the product of their individual probabilities.”

Unlike rule 3 where we only needed one event to occur, we now need all of the events to occur. When we only needed one of the events to occur we were allowed the luxury of adding the probabilities. Now that we need all of them to occur, we must multiply the individual probabilities to compute the product that represents the probability of all events occurring. When multiplying fractions: all numerators are multiplied and the product becomes the numerator of the answer and all denominators are multiplied and the product becomes the denominator of the answer.

Remember the bet I mentioned about throwing heads at least once in three tosses? It begins by reasoning that in order not to throw heads at least once, you must throw tails three times in tow. That is the only combination of the eight possible outcomes of three coins tosses (whether they are tossed one a time or all three at once) that doesn’t include at least one heads:

1/2 x 1/2 x 1/2 = (1/2)3 = 1/8 = .125 = 12.5%. Thusly, we remember rule #2 and reason that the probability of throwing at least one head is:

P = (1 - .125) = .875 = 87.5% = 7/8.

Now don’t spaz out on me just because I chose to use the universal symbol for probability “P” instead of the word “probability.”

It is at this point that the authors choose to remind us about independent trials, where the outcome of a trial has no effect on any other trial. Do you see where this is going? They are preparing us for the “gambler’s fallacy” lecture. In a nutshell, the gambler’s fallacy is when a bettor believes that, fore instance, if black numbers have appeared on a roulette wheel fifty-seven thousand times in a row, it is only logical to bet “red” because it must be “due.”

Lets go back to my beloved coin-flipping bet. Suppose I am watching a friend flipping a coin and he throws tails in the first two tosses He says; “Hey math guy. You just saw me flip tails twice in a row. I know a sophisticated gentleman like you knows that the chance of throwing tails three times in a row are only one in eight or, 7 to 1 against. I’ll be a sport and bet one dollar against your five dollars, that the next toss will be tails (5 to 1 payoff).” I would say; “Not so quick there buddy! Are you trying to tell me you have a goddamn magic coin that knows it has flipped tails twice in a row? The chances of that coin showing tails again is the same as any other time in it’s existence, one in two.”

Probability Rule 4B

(Multiplication Rule – Dependent events)

“For non-independent events, the probability of all of them occurring equals the product of the conditional probabilities, where the conditional probability of one event is affected by the event(s) that came before it.”

Although this rule is often used to compute probabilities in blackjack because the odds in the game change as cards are removed from the deck: I find that poker is an easier game to illustrate this rule.

What is the probability of being dealt a club flush in five cards?

P = 13/52 x 12/51 x 11/50 x 10/49 x 9/48 = 154440/311875200 = 15444/31187520 ≈ .0004951981 = .04951981%. The probability of being dealt a club on the first card is 13/52 because there are 13 clubs out of a total of 52. If you are dealt a club on the first card, there are only 12 clubs remaining out of 51 cards. And thus the progression continues with there being one less club and one less total cards, after each card is dealt. In a desperate attempt to avoid computing the largest common multiple of that huge fraction so I could reduce it (I did take an unnecessary zero on the end of both number by moving the decimal one to the left or dividing both the numerator and denominator by 10) I chose to divide the fraction and convert it to decimal. Of course the resulting number is not completely accurate since I had to round of but I deemed it close enough for this illustration.

What is the probability of being dealt a flush in five cards?

P = 52/52 x 12/51 x 11/50 x 10/49 x 9/48 = 11880/5997600 = 1188/599760 ≈ .001981 = .1981%. The first fraction represents the chances of drawing a card of any suit out of 52 cards. Since the numerator is the same as the denominator, I could “cancel” each of them out. Just imagine I multiplied all the fractions and then divided both the numerator and denominator by 52. You can cancel matching numerators and denominators even if they belong to different fractions:

20/23 x 9/20 = 1/23 x 9/1 = 1/23 x 9 = 9/23

What is the probability of being dealt a royal flush in five cards?

P = (20/52) (4/51) (3/50 (2/49) (1/48) = 480//311875200 ≈ .00053978 = .053978%.

I remember that I once tried to write out this problem and came up with:

P = (5/52) (4/51) (3/50) (2/49) (1/48)

This friends, is the chances of being dealt a royal flush in a specific suit! But my blunder can serve you well if it reminds you to think carefully about how you decide to frame your problem.

Yes, I decided to go with the parentheses this time instead of the “x” sign for multiplication. The dividends of the fractions inside the parentheses are multiplied by each other to compute the answer.

At this point (assuming you have read this far) I imagine your reaction to be one out of possible three:

  • ·      You feel betrayed because I promised to teach you probability without a lot of fancy math thingies.

I’m sorry; I have tried to work you up as slowly as possible without skipping any steps. You will thank me later because a certain amount of math knowledge is required in order to study or even understand probability. 

  • ·     You are annoyed because you have no problem with all of this math stuff and feel I have wasted your time.

If you truly find this article an exercise in belaboring the obvious: your time would be better spent by just reading “Practical Casino Math” and skipping this prep course. 

  • ·     You have forgotten more math than most people know and have always been discouraged by reading books on probability.

We share this journey together brothers and sisters! I will teach you everything in “Practical Casino Math” just as soon as I figure it out myself.


Pascal and Fermat

In the beginning, before probability theory, Man lived like the animals. 

He created game rules through intuition rather than reasoning. 

 

 

Blaise Pascal and Pierre de Fermat are generally considered to be the fathers of probability. In the 17th century they worked out gambling problems for a French nobleman and gentleman gambler by the name of the Chevalier de Mere.

In the year 1654, the Chevalier de Mere made considerable money betting that he could throw at least one six in four throws. Since he incorrectly reasoned that the probability of winning that bet was 4/6 (1/6 x 4 throws), he assumed that the chance of throwing a pair of sixes with two dice must be six times as much, or 24. After losing money at this new wager, he contacted Pascal and asked him to solve the mystery. Pascal corresponded with de Fermat and together they worked out the problem and the science of probability was born.

Lets analyze these problems:

The probability of throwing one six in four rolls of a single die:

We are going to use rule 4 to determine the probability of not throwing a six in four rolls and then subtracting that number from one (rule 2) to determine the answer.

P (no sixes) = (5/6) (5/6) (5/6) (5/6) = 625/1296 = .4823 = 48.23%.

So now we subtract the probability of not throwing a six from one, to determine the probability of throwing at least one:

P (at least one six in four rolls) = (1 - .4823) = .5177 = 51.77%.

We’ll work out what the HP (house percentage) was on this bet later. For now at least we know he had a 51.77% chance of winning.

Now you might be wondering; “If this Chevalier guy was such a gentleman gambler, why didn’t he just bet that he could throw a six in three rolls.

After all: 1/6 + 1/6 + 1/6 = 3/6 = 1/2 = .5 = 50%.

If you think this, you know just enough about probability to be someone’s fish in a dice rolling contest during the renaissance period:

(5/6) (5/6) (5/6) = 125/216 ≈ .5787 = 57.87%. This is the chance of not throwing at six in three rolls.

(1 - .5787) = .4213 = 42.13%. You see, the Chevalier was a gentleman but not a fool.

To compute the probability of throwing one twelve in 24 rolls, we compute the probability of not doing so:

(35/36)24 ≈ .9722224 = 0.50856822447223562323575026806816 ≈ .50857 = 50.857%.

We subtract that number from one to compute the chances of rolling twelve one time in 24 rolls.

(1 - .50857) = 0.49143 = 49.143%.

The first number indicates we are going to multiply 35/36 by itself 23 times. To multiply the numerator by itself 23 times, multiply the denominator by itself 23 times and then divide the numerator by the denominator, would be the epitome of masochism. I divided 35 by 36 so I could convert the number to a decimal and then multiply it times itself 23 times.

John Scarne is his book, “Scarne’s Complete Guild to Gambling” tells a tale from 1952, of two New York City gamblers by the names of “Fat the Butch” and “The Brain.” The Brain offered to bet Fat the Butch $1000 that he couldn’t throw a twelve in 21 rolls. Fat the Butch figured that since there are 36 dice combinations and only one of the twelve, on average it should take 18 rolls to roll a twelve and that he was getting the best of it. Twelve hours and $49,000 later, “Fat the Butch” decided that there must be something wrong with his logic and gave up.

Which just goes to show you that hustlers can use the oldest cons in the world, as long as the sucker hasn’t heard of them.

Odds

“Odds are another way of expressing probability. Whereas probability represents the relationship between the desired event and all possible events, odds describe the relationship between a desired event and all non-desired events.”

Fortunately, us casino folk are more accustomed to expressing probability as “odds against” an event:

The chances of winning a straight-up bet in roulette are 1/38 but it is usually expressed as 37 to 1 against.

The chances of rolling an eleven on the come-out roll (or any other time) is:

2/36 = 1/18 = 17 to 1

The chances of the dealer having a ten under his ace and thus having a blackjack is:

16/51 = 1/3.1875 = 2.1875 to 1.

There are 16 face cards from a remaining 51 unknown cards, that fraction can be reduced by dividing the denominator by the numerator (for a change). That makes the numerator a value of 1 and makes the denominator the smallest number possible.

And in case you haven’t figured it out for your self yet, the formula for converting probability to odds is:

If the probability of an event is x/y, then the odds against the event are y-x to x. Lets take an example from craps: there are six combinations of seven out of thirty-six total. So the chances of rolling a seven are 6/36 = 1/6 = 5 to 1.

If we reverse engineer this problem x = 1 and y = 6 so: 6 –1 to 1 = 5 to 1

The difference between 5 to 1 and 5 for 1

In craps, if a bet on “seven” paid 5 to 1, the bettor would bet a dollar and if the bet won, he would collect a total of $6 and down. But the bet is paid as it is listed on the layout as 5 for 1. The “for” means “a total of and down” in other words, we’ll give you five but we are going to keep the one. The number preceding “for” it is what the bettor can expect to collect, for each dollar or check bet, assuming he takes the bet down after it wins. So a payoff of 5 for 1 is the same as 4 to 1.

When training BJ dealer to be crap dealers, I would pose the question; “What does a “3 to 2” snapper pay if we want to convert the “to” to a “for?” I seldom get a correct response for this, for few can come up with: 5 for 2. In other words, the bettor collects 5 and down, for every 2 bet.  


 

Permutations

If you are anything like me, this is the part where things will start to get difficult. If I have failed to reach you thus far, you might consider re-reading the previous material, although I promise to take this as slowly as we both may require.

This book defines “permutations” in this way; “Permutations” refer to the number of different ways in which objects can be arranged in order. In a permutation, each item can appear only once and each order of the item’s arrangement constitutes a separate permutation.

Again, I find that reading the dictionary definition is also helpful: “An ordered arrangement of all or some of the elements of a set.”

A clever observation I read in “Probability Without Tears” by Derek Roundtree, asserts that a “combination lock” is miss-named. If a locks’ combination was say: 22 – 10 – 32 and it was truly a combination lock, then dialing 10 – 22 – 32 should also open the lock. But the locks’ combination must be dialed in a certain order. Since this is the case, the lock should be call a “permutation lock” since the numbers must be permuted (chosen, dialed) in a certain order. This book also gives a great example that illustrates the difference between a combination and a permutation:

Any combination of things can be permuted – re-ordered or re-arranged – in several different ways. For instance, let’s select the first three letters from the alphabet. We could write these letters down in six different ways:

ABC BCA CAB ACB BAC CBA

(i) How many combinations do we have here?

(ii) How may permutations?

(i) There is only one combination – the first three letters of the alphabet are the same three letters, no matter what order they are written in.

(ii) There are six permutations – each different order is a new permutation.

The most important thing to remember is that in a combination, the order isn’t important but in a permutation it is. Also, there will always be more permutations than combinations.

 

Creating a “probability tree” is often the easiest way to frame a solution to a problem. Imagine there were three ping pong balls, labeled “a” “b” and “c.” If the first ball drawn is an “a” then the second on can be a “b” or a “c.” After the second ball is drawn, the identity of the third ball is obvious, as there is only one ball remaining. You can see from this tree that there is 6 permutations of the three letters and since they all have an equal chance of appearing, there is a:

1/6 ≈ .1667 = 16.67%, chance of any of them appearing.

At this point you might well imagine that since there were three possible outcomes of the first draw and two possible outcomes of the second; the mathematical shortcut we are looking for is:

3 * 2 = 6.

It is at this point in “Practical Casino Math” the authors illustrate the permutation formula by using an example of picking the first two horses to cross the finish line in a five horse race. I found that the way they described this problem was more confusing than helpful. I was fortunate enough to find myself sitting next to a math professor, while I was passing time in the waiting room of a car dealership by reading “Practical Casino Math.” With the help he gave me and the insights I gained from the book “The Mathematics of Games and Gambling” by Edward Packel, I will illustrate this problem in a way I think makes it easier to understand.

But first lets work our way up to this by studying some simpler problems since you must learn to understand simple problems and their solutions before you can even aspire to achieve oneness with the esoteric beauty of mathematical law. So here is the best of the problems from TMOGAG that are designed to make you understand the forces you hope to control.  

But really I think Dr. Packel said it best; “A crucial concept in what follows will be the distinction between a permutation and combination of objects (people, horses, cards, letters, or other entities). A permutation is a selections of objects in which order is taken into account. A combination is a selection in which order is unimportant.”

Question 1.

In how many different ways can a bridge player arrange a particular (13 card) bridge hand?

Solution:

Remember the example of the first three letters of the alphabet being the first three letters and thus the same combination of three letters no matter how you arrange them? Well these 13 cards are the same 13-card combination, no matter how you arrange them. This means this is a permutation problem.

If we think of ordering the given hand from positions 1 through 13, there are 13 choices for the first position, then 12 choices for the second, then 11 for the third, and so on down to 2 choices for the twelfth position with the 1 remaining card going in the last position.

Thus there are: 13*12*11* ... *3*2*1 = 6,227,020,800 arrangements of a given bridge hand.

Notice that I choose to use the asterisk to denote multiplication and this “…” thing is called an “ellipsis” and is the way most writers choose to avoid writing out the entire equation but not using “factorials” that the reader hasn’t been introduced to yet.

If you want to see that equation written out fully it would be:

13*12*11*10*9*8*7*6*5*4*3*2*1 = 6,227,020,800

Why do we multiply rather than add? Because we are following probability rule 4B which calls for multiplication of conditional events.

Question 2.

How many different finishes among the first 3 places can occur in an 8 horse race (excluding the possibility of ties)?

Solution:

There are 8 choices for the winner, then 7 for the places horse (2nd place), then 6 for the show horse (3rd place). Accordingly there are 8*7*6 = 336 different orders of finish as far as the payoff windows are concerned (ignoring ties).

Notice that the question isn’t asking how many combinations of three horses will be the first to cross the finish line, it makes the distinction of order, so this is a permutation problem and rule 4B was used again.

Question 3.

How many foursomes can be formed from among 7 golfers?

Solution:

Consider a score card sighed by the foursome. There are 7 possibilities for the first name on the card, six possibilities for the 2nd name, then 5 possibilities for the 3rd and 4 possibilities for the last name. This gives 7*6*5*4 = 840 possibilities, where different orderings of the same 4 players have been counted as different foursomes. But the wording of the question indicates that order is unimportant, so we realize that the result of 840 contains considerable duplication. In fact a given foursome can be ordered in 4*3*2*1 = 24 different ways, so our total of 840 has counted each foursome 24 times. We see then that there are 840/24 = 35 possible foursomes that can be chosen.

What we are supposed to learn from this is: that in order to compute the number of combinations, we must compute the number of permutations and then divide that number by the number of possible permutations that can be formed by the number of objects in the selection.

Question 4.

How many different 13-card bridge hands are there?

Solution:

Again order is unimportant here. We wish to know how many different hands of 13 cards can be chosen from a 52-card deck. If order were important there would be

possibilities. Since order is unimportant we must divide by:

13*12*11*10*9*8*7*6*5*4*3*2*1

We thus obtain the smaller but still astronomical count of

different bridge hands.

Question 5.

How many different baseball-batting orders are possible with a 25-player roster in which any player can bat in any position?

Solution:

How the wording of the question demands that order be taken into account, so we do not factor out duplications. The answer is:

a rather large number of batting orders.

Two more points from TMOGAG for summary and we will be finished with our discussion on permutations. First, all examples involve choosing without replacement some subset from a set of objects. Thus, as each choice is made (position is filled) the number of choices for the next position decreases by one. This accounts for the repeated appearance of consecutive integers* (decreasing by one) and motivates the notation developed in the next section.

Second, you use only one calculation to compute the number of permutation but to determine the number of combinations requires an additional calculation,

*Integer: Any member of the set of positive whole numbers (1, 2, 3…), negative whole numbers (-1, -2, -3…), and zero.

Preparing to learn factorials

If I dreaded actually thinking about and (gasp) remembering the probability rules so I could construct solutions to probability problems, I cringed at the thought of conquering factorials so I could construct (or at least understand someone else’s) solutions to life’s more complex (and thus more meaningful) questions. Questions like; “Well I don’t know too many games where everyone agrees to play five-card showdown. What are my chances of bettering my pair of jacks or better if I draw three cards?” “What if I keep a kicker?” Or; “What are my chances of hitting of hitting a three-spot in keno? I really need to talk to that man standing on a corner of a street named after a letter of the alphabet.”

The source that I found easiest to understand when it came to factorials was a website called “Purplemath” by Elizabeth Stapel. It can be found at

http://www.purplemath.com/index.htm

The section dealing with factorials can be found at http://www.purplemath.com/modules/factorial.htm.

The following is excerpts from that web page along with my own commentary and analysis.

“Factorials are very simple things. They’re just products, indicated by an exclamation mark. For instance, “four factorial” is written as “4!” and means 1*2*3*4 = 24. In general, n! (“enn factorial”) means the product of all the whole numbers from 1 to n

n! = 1*2*3*...*n

For various reasons, 0! is defined to be equal to 1, not 0. Memorize this now.”

I find this to be a wonderful explanation except that the lists the integers in ascending order (1*2*3*4 = 24). I am more accustomed to seeing writers express that in descending order (4*3*2*1 = 24). Which of course would make the last equation read: n! = n* ... *3*2*1

I would think the easiest possible explanation would be: a factorial is the number in the factorial, multiplied by every whole number that is less than it. You often see factorials referred to as “products.” This is certainly true as the only way to “simplify” a factorial is by multiplication, either by paper and pencil or by calculator.

Evaluate 6!

“Evaluate,” means the same as “write it out.”

6*5*4*3*2*1

Simplify 6!

“Simplify” means to compute the final product.

6*5*4*3*2*1 = 720

I discovered an excellent online calculator (Java) that you can use to simplify factorials as well as use the permutation and combination formulas that are about to be explained.

http://www.wiley.com/college/mat/gilbert139343/java/java05_s.html

Another online calculator that can be used to for these functions and in addition it can be used to divide factorials can be found at.

http://www.hutchon.net/Factorials.htm

Simplify 6!/4!

You can do this on the calculator or you can do it with paper and pencil.

The numbers that have the red lines through them have been “cancelled.” Canceling identical numerators and denominators is much like reducing a fraction by dividing the numerator and denominator by the same number. Since the entire denominator was cancelled, it has a value of 1 and I didn’t even bother to show it.

Yes the denominator indicates that it is the product of 14! * 3! Now you might be thinking the first step in simplifying this fraction is to determine what the product of 14!3! is. No, we can utilize those factorials to cancel.

In the second fraction of the top row, I realized that both 17! and 14! contain the numbers

14*…*4*3*2*1. I could then cancel them out and was left with 17*16*15 for a numerator and 3*2*1 for a denominator. In the first fraction of the bottom row, I reduced the fraction by dividing numbers in the numerator by numbers in the denominator.

 

Another definition of the letter “P.”

Up until now, the letter “P” has stood for “probability.” But it can also stand for “the number of different permutations.” When used for this purpose, you will see either nPr or Pn,r. “n” represents the total number of objects and “r” represents the number of objects to be selected. It may be spoken as “n objects taken r at a time” or “n taken r.”

This method of expressing permutations can be used to easily compute the number of permutations. If a horse race has five horses and we wish to compute the number of exactas that are possible (first two horse to cross the finish line and order is important) we can express that problem as 5P2 or P5,2. As you will soon learn, there is a permutation formula that we can use that involves dividing 5! by the number of unselected items. The simpler method is to factor 5 (n) by the number of times of the value of r or in this case 2.

So: 5P2 = 5*4 = 20.

Let’s do one more problem to make sure we understand this process. You have twelve contestants in a beauty pageant and there will be three selected: one for first place, one for second place and one for third place. 12P3 = 12*11*10 = 1320 you see we factored the total number of contestants by the number of selections.

If all of the objects are to be included in a selection then the permutation can be represented as nPn. Since all the objects are included, there is no unused portion of the objects to divide into the total number of objects. Subsequently, nPn or Pn,n is the same as n!.

I have one more concept that I need to explain before I can go back to PCM.

What is the value of

 

?

Remember that the numerator of the first fraction represents all objects of a group are selected so in the next fraction the numerator is 4! The denominator of the first fraction can be simplified to 2!

The importance of this equation becomes clearer when you consider that it proves:

which is the basis for the permutation formula that we are finally ready to learn.


The dreaded permutation formula of death

I believe that I have finally learned enough about math (and shared it with you) that I can now begin to solve and explain the horseracing example in PCM.

This is the permutation formula that can be used to compute the number of permutations in any example. Although, there is sometimes an easier way to compute the number of permutations, this formula will always work. It states that the total number of permutations of n number of objects taken r at a time equals n factorial divided by the total number of objects (n) minus the number of objects selected factorial. The denominator is just a method of eliminating all of the un-chosen objects. And remember, even if Pn,n and the denominator equals 0!, 0! equals 1, so the equation still works.

The example used in PCM is to compute the number of exactas possible in a five horse race. Remember, since in an exacta the order of finish is important, this is a permutation problem. So, n = 5 (the total number of objects) and r = 2 (the first two horses to finish). And we can restate this problem as:

However the way PCM presented the solution to this problem and the way it presented the permutation formula left me very confused (I was tripping, bro) and was the motivation for me to write this article.

Let us start with the bottom line which defines n!. We know that n! will equal n multiplied by every whole number that is less than n (except zero). So, n! equals n * (n-1) * (n-2) … and the reason for the “x 2 x 1” at the end is because the authors didn’t know how large of a number n would be but they knew that the value of the last two pairs of parentheses will always equal 2 and 1. In the case of our example (n – 3) would equal 2 and (n – 4) would equal 1.

The last pair of parentheses on the top line is what really had me thrown for a loop until I remembered what I had learned about 5P2 and how to simplify it. Rather than compute the value of n! and divide it by (n – r)! they decided to merely take n and factor it by the number of objects indicated by r. Or in the case of our example of the horse race, the part of the equation following the last equal sign would read: 5 x 4, as (n – r + 1) would equal 4. This (n-r+1) thing is merely a way of expressing that shortcut.

Example: Numbers Games

PCM gives this example of a numbers game where the bettor must pick a three-digit number. Since the numbers must be in exact order, one might think this is a permutation problem. But since a single digit number can appear more than once (4-4-3) it isn’t. The chances of picking the correct three-digit number are 10*10*10 or one in ten thousand.

Combinations

Of course we remember that in a combination the order of the selected objects isn’t important. So, there is a different formula to use for computing the number of combinations. Earlier we learned that you compute the number of combinations by computing the number of permutations and then factoring out the duplications. Now we will use a precise formula for accomplishing this.

n again represent the total number of objects and x represents the number of chosen objects. The equation to the left of the equal sign is read “n choose x.” You may also see it expressed as C n,x or nCx. Lets take some examples and see how this formula works.

Compute the number of possible quinellas in a five horse race (first two finishers, order not important).

.

Compute the number of foursomes that can be created from seven golfers.

Now this last example exemplified my initial and profound shock upon thinking that there was more to computing the number of combinations than by dividing the total number of permutations by the number of unused objects. After all, isn’t that what we did in solving this problem without the sacred combination formula? No, not exactly or maybe, I really don’t know. But in the previous solution, we only took 7 by a factor of 2 to deduce the total number of permutations. In this solution, we took a full factor of 7!, which meant that the denominator needed to be the amount of x factorial times the amount of the unused objects, factorial.

Now at this point your reaction may very well mirror my own, which says something like; “This is a bunch of shit! You show me a perfectly good way of doing something, then you have to come up with some bullshit complicated stupid bullshit way that requires me to understand this shit!” But there is a method to this madness. You see, by having a single all encompassing equation to compute permutations and a matching one for combinations, they have eliminated almost all the mistakes you can make setting up a solution. The only major (and fatal) mistake you can make is not to carefully consider whether your problem is one where the order of the selection is important. Remember, in a permutation the order is important and in a combination it isn’t.

We will finish this discussion on combinations and finally rid ourselves of what I have considered to be the most arduous and torturous segment of “Practical Casino Math” by demonstrating the two combination examples shown in the book.

Example: Lottery

The winner must pick all six numbers out of a total of forty-two balls, numbered 1 – 42 and order is unimportant.

C 42, 6 = 42! / 6! (42-6)! = 5245786.000000001 Ha, I used the online calculator for that one by entering the total objects (42) the number of objects in the first set (6) and the second set (unused) (36). This means the pathetic humanoid that buys a ticket has only one chance in about 5.2 million.

Example: Poker

The probability of being dealt a royal flush in five cards, (I probably screwed up my last attempt at this one).

C 52, 5 = 52! / 5! (52-5)! = 2598959.999999999 (Yes, Mr. Calculator at work again). And yes, this is the chance of being dealt one of the four royal flushes (or any other hand really) because that number is the number of possible five card combinations with a 52-card deck. So to get the final answer we divide 4 by 2598959.999999999 and get 1.5390771693292701696063040600856e-6 on our Microsoft calculator. That “e-6” crap on the end means we have to move the decimal place six spaces to the left. That will make it “approximately equal to” .00000153907772 or 1 in 649,740. We got that calculation by dividing 1 by .00000153907772

In case you are wondering why we divided 4 by the total five-card combination that could occur, it all goes back to numerator being the total number of desired results and the denominator being the total number of equally possible results.

Expectation (Expected Value)

Expected value isn’t a concept that I immediately embrace, as I am more comfortable in the realm of house percentage (HP). But perhaps that’s why I’m a lump, so lets make sure we have a handle (no pun intended) on this expected value thing.

“Expectation, or expected value, represents how much money a player can expect to win or lose in the long run on a particular wager. If the player’s expectation is negative, as is typical for most bets made in a casino. The player can expect to lose money over the long haul.”

The explanation I think all these books dance around but not quite nail, is this: It is the “taxes” taken from each bet, whether it wins, loses or pushes. Which brings me to another point that I have only read in a couple of sources. That is that there are some gambling problems that must be assigned dollar values, in order to be computed. Expected value is one those problems.

EV = ∑ (Net payi x Pi)

“EV” means expected value. Ahoy, we have another gay little symbol sighting! “∑” means “the sum of everything inside the parentheses.” “Net payi” equals the net payoff and “Pi” is the probability of winning the payoff. Again, this is one of the sacred formulas, which if properly used, will tell the expected value of any bet (assuming you can compute the chances of the bet winning).

Suppose I create my own casino game. You cut a card from a 52-card deck and if you cut a spade I pay you one dollar. If you don’t cut a spade, you lose one dollar. I think I’ll call it “Rape and Pillage.” I can just see the first drop box on a game, stenciled with “RP-1.” But any way, here is the equation in use, showing us how far I’m bending you over.

EV = ∑ [(+$1) * (1/4)] + [(-$1) * (3/4)] = -$.50

There you go. Your dollar becomes fifty cents the second you put it in action on my game, win, lose or draw. If you were thinking that the answer was going to be closer to -$.66; you didn’t visualize the problem correctly.

You lose $1 three times for a sub-total of -$3. You win $1 one time for a sub-total of $1. Hence you net balance after all four possible occurrences magically appear, is -$2. -$2 divided by the four trials is -$.50

On an American “00” roulette wheel, the payoff for a bet on a single number pays 35 to 1. If a player makes a $5 bet the expected value of his bet is:

EV = ∑ [(+$175) (1/38) + (-$5) (37/38)] = -$0.263

Which means the player, on average, can expect to lose $.26 every time he makes the bet. Conversely, the casino can expect to win $.26 every time that bet is made.

This also demonstrates that not all gambling writers choose to frame their problems on the hypothetical $1 bet. If the reader didn’t read that problem carefully, he might think the player is losing $.26 on every dollar bet.

House Advantage

“House advantage, or house edge, is the opposite or negative of the player expectation, expressed as a percentage of the wager. Sometimes house advantage is referred to as PC, for percentage, although care must be taken when discussing PC since this term is sometimes used for hold percentage. Hold is not the same as house advantage and there is much confusion amount some casino personnel regarding the meaning of “PC.” Hold and hold percentage are discussed in Chapter 3 when common casino measurements are examined in more detail.”

 
”House advantage” (HA) or as I am more accustomed to referring to it: “house percentage” (HP) is the house’s advantage (or expectation) on a bet, expressed as a percentile, instead of a dollar amount. Expected value changes every time the bet does. Since HA is expressed as a percentage, it remains the same, regardless of the amount of the bet.

The authors mention two issues that can cause confusion regarding HA. The first and one of particular interest to me, is whether ties are included in HA in baccarat and most notably, a roll of twelve on the come-out roll for the don’t pass bettor. Writers such as John Scarne, believe that the amount bet on the don’t pass that is pushed on a roll of twelve should be included in the total amount put at risk by the bettor. Michael Shackleford AKA “The Wizard of Odds” classifies the push on twelve is a “non-event” and thus comes up with a slightly lower HA for the don’t pass. Both methods will be covered in their entirety in chapter 4. The second issue involves whether to merely include the “base bet” in games like Caribbean Stud Poker, Let It Ride and Three Card Poker, or if the average amount put in action should be considered.

Computing House Advantage Directly From Odds

The authors of “Practical Casino Math” certainly gained my respect with their inclusion of this section. I will present a method of computing HA without the need to use the expected value formula. I have only seen this taught by John Scarne and the technique is unknown to many people that are considered to be experts at gambling related mathematics.

If the payoff for a bet is x to 1 and the true odds against are y to 1, the house advantage is:

(y-x) / (y+1)

If the payoff doesn’t “end in one” then the process becomes a bit more difficult to remember. If the payoff is x to z and the true odds against are y to w, the HA is equal to:

(yz-xw) / [z(y+w)] And in case you don’t know, when two values are together, like in the case of “yz” then that means they are multiplied.

But who wants to remember all that shit, right? Let me tell you there is an easy way to remember this and I learned it from my hero, John Scarne.

“The house advantage is obtained by dividing the difference between what a bet is paid and what it should be paid, by what the bet would have been paid “and down” if the bet paid true odds.”

Now if that sounds like a mouthful, you should not only understand it but it should become your new mantra when looking at a game of chance. It will become clearer as you see me work out problems with it.

One number straight-up in roulette:

One dollar pays $36 (35 to 1) and down when it should pay $38 (37 losers versus one winner). What is the difference? Two. 2 is now divided by the amount the bet should have paid and down ($38).

2/38 ≈ 0.05263 = 5.263%

Don’t forget to move the decimal point over two spaces in order to convert it to percentage.

Place bet on the six or eight:

A six-dollar place bet on the six pays $7. Since the bettor is betting on six to be rolled before a seven, the true odds payoff (6 to 5) for a six-dollar bet should be $7.20

Difference: $.20

Total of true odds payoff and down: $13.20

.20/13.20 = 0.01515 = 1.515%

Big 6 or Big 8:

A $1 bet on the big 6 should pay $1.20 but it only pays $1.

Difference: $.20

Total of true odds payoff and down: $2.20

.20/2.20 ≈ .0909 = 9.09%

So you’re thinking; “Wow, I’d be really stupid to bet on the corner red when I could put that money to good use by investing it on the hard 6.” Well, lets do a little research for the prospectus.

Hard 6 or 8:

A bet on the hard six is betting that the shooter will throw a hard six (3-3) before he throws and easy six (5-1 or 4-2) or a seven. A $1 bet pays $10 and down when it should pay $11 and down (10 for 1 or 9 to 1 payoff). That is because there are ten losing combinations (4 easy way & 6 sevens) and only one winning combination.

Difference: $1

Total of true odds payoff and down: $11

1/11 ≈ .0909 = 9.09%

Continued

 

 

© 2005 Dale S. Yeazel

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